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Author
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Topic: connection between infinity and zero.
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guy_me_19
Knowflake Posts: 196
From: India
Registered: Jun 2005
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posted March 22, 2006 01:08 AM
 
i was just thinking about a possible connection between zero and infinity .. in that i visualised a sorta infinite line passing thru the centre of a circle.. imeediately after that i reclollected that there does exist this conection in nature..
that that loop being a magnetic field and that long infinitely extended line being a current carrying wire..
and ofcorse the other way as well..
meaning that loop being a current carrying wire and that line being a magnetic field line.
what say?
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jkxx
Knowflake Posts: 399
From: Denver, CO, US
Registered: Nov 2005
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posted March 22, 2006 03:05 PM
Electricity doesn't travel at infinite speeds - but the loop analogy sounds like the infinite cycles in astrology? Interesting thought.IP: Logged |
Girl of the Water
Knowflake Posts: 101
From: Pennsylvania
Registered: Mar 2006
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posted March 22, 2006 06:02 PM
I've noticed that 0 shares a couple of properties with the number 9. When you add it to a number, you get that same number in return just as you would with the 9 -- (6+0=6 6+9=15, 1+5=6). Also, multiplying anything at all by zero just gives zero back to you, just like if you multiply anything by nine it can be reduced back to nine.They are the on either end of the numerological number line, after all, so I guess it makes sense that these numbers would be connected with infinity. IP: Logged |
BlueRoamer
Knowflake Posts: 3475
From: Calm Blue Ocean, Calm Blue Ocean
Registered: Jun 2003
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posted March 22, 2006 06:26 PM
A loop carrying a current does not create a straight line of magnetic field in the middle. It creates a circular magnetic field around the loop that goes all the way around.I do see what you're saying, visualizing how physics can be related to the symbol of infinite. But I don't think it has anything to do with magnetism, that is simply a correlation. Here is some info on the origins of the infinite symbol from wikipedia.com, it seems the origin of the symbol is debatable: The precise origins of the infinity symbol ∞ are unclear. One possibility is suggested by the name it is sometimes called — the lemniscate, from the Latin lemniscus, meaning "ribbon". One can imagine walking forever along a simple loop formed from a ribbon. A popular explanation is that the infinity symbol is derived from the shape of a Möbius strip. Again, one can imagine walking along its surface forever. However, this explanation is improbable, since the symbol had been in use to represent infinity for over two hundred years before August Ferdinand Möbius and Johann Benedict Listing discovered the Möbius strip in 1858. John Wallis is usually credited with introducing ∞ as a symbol for infinity in 1655 in his De sectionibus conicus. One conjecture about why he chose this symbol is that he derived it from a Roman numeral for 1000 that was in turn derived from the Etruscan numeral for 1000, which looked somewhat like CIƆ and was sometimes used to mean "many". Another conjecture is that he derived it from the Greek letter ω (omega), the last letter in the Greek alphabet. IP: Logged |
Lialei
Knowflake Posts: 1851
From: threshold
Registered: Jul 2005
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posted March 22, 2006 11:53 PM
Interesting that the infinity symbol
looks curiously like DNA...or perhaps better said, vice versa~
http://members.lycos.nl/TheDNApage/dnapixdb.html IP: Logged |
jkxx
Knowflake Posts: 399
From: Denver, CO, US
Registered: Nov 2005
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posted March 23, 2006 01:13 PM
Ok, this reminded me of another q and maybe some of the math gurus will respond.(Wasn't aware of the relationship between 0 and 9, very very interesting!) Why is something to the 0th power 1? like 2 ^ 0 = 1
even 0 ^ 0 still = 1 How can a bunch of nothings produce initiation? (numerologically speaking) IP: Logged |
MysticMelody
Knowflake Posts: 3041
From:
Registered: Dec 2005
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posted March 23, 2006 05:59 PM
I'm not a math guru yet but...each time you go up a power, you multiply by the base and each time you go down a power you divide by the base. 2 to the 4th is 16 divided by 2 is 8 (2 to the 3rd) divided by 2 is 4 (2 to the 2nd) divided by 2 is 2 (2 to the 1st) divided by 2 is one (2 to the zero)
divided by 2 is 1/2 (two to the neg one power) divided by 2 again is 1/4 (2 to the neg 2 power) divided by 2 is 1/8 (2 to the neg 3rd) divided by two is 1/16 (2 to the neg 4th) etc I don't know how this applies to numerology, but I look forward to learning more info on the subject. *edit* I skipped 2 to the first, it's fixed now IP: Logged |
Girl of the Water
Knowflake Posts: 101
From: Pennsylvania
Registered: Mar 2006
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posted March 23, 2006 06:13 PM
MysticMelody, your explanation makes a lot of sense. I'm not sure either why that would apply to numerology, but maybe I'll think of it tonight.When I learned the rule of numerology that the there are truly only the numbers 0-9, I thought of them in a circle... kind of like the snake eating its own tail. IP: Logged |
artlovesdawn
Knowflake Posts: 1177
From:
Registered: Jul 2005
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posted March 23, 2006 09:25 PM
..IP: Logged |
guy_me_19
Knowflake Posts: 196
From: India
Registered: Jun 2005
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posted March 24, 2006 08:53 AM
well i du know that a current carrying loop creates magnetic field lines that are circular.. but obviously .. there goes a magnetic field line .. right thru the centre of the circle.. up till infinity.. n u know the interesting thing here is .. (as clearly revealed by the mathematics of this topic).. that the rest of the field lines which do not go til infinity .. by default form a circle; though not a perfect circle..but atleast a closed loop..n may b that 2 is a connection between infinity n zero.. i din't mention this one in the original write-up though...
Nonetheless all this is plain conjecture!
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guy_me_19
Knowflake Posts: 196
From: India
Registered: Jun 2005
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posted March 24, 2006 08:59 AM
n u know.. (this interesting thought just striked me)..
theres a topic called system of circles..
in that system.. we have one line and the rest are circles.. n but v get all these circles and the line as well.. as we alter the value of one paramatrer.. we get the line .. when this parameter takes the value one..
isn this 2 a connection.??
(i min u're getting the circles and the line (by default infinitely extended.. coz if its not infinitely extended it will b a cicle..)..by one equation.. what more du u want??!!)
plain conjecture again though..!! (u may laugh at me i min)..IP: Logged |
jkxx
Knowflake Posts: 399
From: Denver, CO, US
Registered: Nov 2005
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posted March 24, 2006 01:03 PM
..we alter one parameter to get the other - like in quantum mechanics?I'm still having trouble with the magnetic field idea. IP: Logged |
sesame
Moderator Posts: 1553
From: Oz
Registered: Nov 2003
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posted March 27, 2006 04:44 AM
Great thoughts everyone! Very enyoable thread. I just wanted to add one thing. If 0 is the denominator, the answer is undefined (1/0 = undefined). However, as the denominator approaches zero, the answer is said to be infinite - I always thought infinity is like a process, where 0 is nothing. The process of the denominator getting extremely small, creates an extremely large answer. Anyhow, 0/0 = undefined. All numbers divisible by themselves equal 0 except zero. It is a singularity. 0 to the power of 0 = 1. 0^1 = 0. 0^-1 = undefined.However, it seems 0^0=1 is highly debatable and could actually change between 1 and 0 
http://www.answerbag.com/q_view.php/11866 Dean. ------------------
Always think compassion... The Dalai Lama
My numerology program based on "Star Signs" by Linda Goodman
Logically Magical Logic is Magically Logical Magic! (and vice versa!) IP: Logged |
guy_me_19
Knowflake Posts: 196
From: India
Registered: Jun 2005
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posted April 02, 2006 09:50 AM
seriusly sesame!
n u know.. i was gonna rite the same.. i min the fact that 0 and infinity are inverses with respect 2 multiplication.. as if going into one another and emerging again.. from the other side..(i min i m trying 2 sorta "visualise" the multiplication of zero and infinity..)..
i was waiting n waiting for u 2 reply n u finally did, thnx!
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guy_me_19
Knowflake Posts: 196
From: India
Registered: Jun 2005
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posted April 02, 2006 09:53 AM
bless u atrlovesdawn for that input!IP: Logged |
guy_me_19
Knowflake Posts: 196
From: India
Registered: Jun 2005
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posted April 02, 2006 09:59 AM
quantum mechanics got nothing 2 du here jkxx.. well i dindt mean any analogy.. if u have found one in quantum mechanics..IP: Logged |
Mannu
Knowflake Posts: 2027
From:
Registered: Mar 2006
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posted April 02, 2006 02:50 PM
Dean,
You said "All numbers divisible by themselves equal 0 except zero"
Did you mean equals 1?
Example: 6/6 = 1, 5/5 = 1 therefore can 0/0 equal 1 (This is a special case and we call this Indeterminate(any answer could pop up) in mathematics (not same as undefined/nonsensical (2/0 is undefined because division is inverse of multiplication and no number exists such that its multiplication with 0 gives you the same number)..
For example :
x/x Lim as x ->0 = 1, however 2x/x Lim as x->0 = 2
===========================
Cantor was a great mathematician who played with the concept of infinity and contributed much to maths in my mind. He was a pisces by the way  Ok...he said let infinite monkeys type on infinite type writers then the following
lines from Shakespears Hamlet can be written infinitely: quote:
I could confine myself to a nutshell and declare myself king of infinity
Most of his contemporaries were against him and maintained that infinity should be treated as a way of speaking and cannot be assigned a mathematical value. The piscean that he is, he ignored them and went on to further prove that some infinities are greater than others... A must read, i.e Cantor for those who want to read the mind of God - lol IP: Logged |
Lindaland
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